Tampa 12/30 Opinions needed

[PSH]

Looked at the 1 in Race 4 and it would have paid over $300 and both went off at the same odds of 15-1

[Bigsmc]

Originally Posted by PSH

Looked at the 1 in Race 4 and it would have paid over $300 and both went off at the same odds of 15-1

The parlay is in the neighborhood of $350 if I am doing the math right (Scav where are you? I need my accountant.). I'm clueless. That would be on a $2 bet, since I played a $1 P3 do I cut that in half? If so, then the payout was fairly close.

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Bigsmc

The parlay is in the neighborhood of $350 if I am doing the math right (Scav where are you? I need my accountant.). I'm clueless. That would be on a $2 bet, since I played a $1 P3 do I cut that in half? If so, then the payout was fairly close.

Parlay was $340 for $2, so yes $1 would have been $170.

The pick three that was really low was the late pick 3 last Friday.

[Scav]

Originally Posted by GPK

Parlay was $340 for $2, so yes $1 would have been $170.

The pick three that was really low was the late pick 3 last Friday.

IF you only bet $2 on it, he put $27 into the ticket.....

If he played a $2 Cold P3 10/9/6 then yeah.....

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Scav

IF you only bet $2 on it, he put $27 into the ticket.....

If he played a $2 Cold P3 10/9/6 then yeah.....

Never heard of a parlay being figured out in that manner.

[Bigsmc]

Originally Posted by GPK

Never heard of a parlay being figured out in that manner.

That's because you don't live in Scav's World.

[GPK]

Originally Posted by Bigsmc

That's because you don't live in Scav's World.

He's on crack. The parlay is based soley on the price the winner paid in each leg, no matter if you singled a horse or used all in a leg.

[GPK]

Why does how much he out into the overall ticket make a difference?

I was always taught that to figure out the parlay, you take the price the winner paid in the first leg and roll it over into the 2nd race and then take that total and roll it over into the 3rd race. All based on a $2 mutual.

In this case:

Race 1 winner paid $3 for a $2 bet. Take that $3 and bet it on the winner of the next leg which paid $14, so $14 x 1.5 = $21. Take that $21 and bet it on the winner of the last leg, so $32.40 x 10.5 = $340.20

[Bigsmc]

Originally Posted by GPK

Why does how much he out into the overall ticket make a difference?

I was always taught that to figure out the parlay, you take the price the winner paid in the first leg and roll it over into the 2nd race and then take that total and roll it over into the 3rd race. All based on a $2 mutual.

In this case:

Race 1 winner paid $3 for a $2 bet. Take that $3 and bet it on the winner of the next leg which paid $14, so $14 x 1.5 = $21. Take that $21 and bet it on the winner of the last leg, so $32.40 x 10.5 = $340.20

That's the way I figured it. I just had no confidence in the method.

[Bigsmc]

Originally Posted by Scav

What?

Three winners paid, $3.00, $14.00, and $32.40. What is the parlay?

Okay I see above, not sure that's right though.

I doesn't matter. Just felt like it should've paid more.

[Scav]

Originally Posted by Bigsmc

Three winners paid, $3.00, $14.00, and $32.40. What is the parlay?

Okay I see above.

I am not 100% sure on that though. The 'parlay' is virtually extinct since P3's were available. I know that when I played a parlay in NY, my explanation is how it was sectioned and how I figured out what I was getting paid.

[-BT-]

6th race

what am i missing w/ Gaskin Land (#8)? 3-1 favorite off his last 2 efforts, shipping in from the bullpen (charles town)

i don't get it

if i were to play the race

$1 tri 1/5679/5679

gl all

-bt-