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Originally Posted by oracle80
How about this one?
How about the guy who has a verbal contract that says he gets a breeding right for any horse he buys the client who becomes a stallion.
Guy sells the horse as a sire to interests in another country for a chunk of change.
Agent says he wants the cash equivalent of a breeding right because the horse was sold.
Client with a straight face tells him that the agreement was a breeding right and since he doesnt own him anymore that hes not entitled to anything?
Yes, this has happened.
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I'm definitely not surprised.